KJV Only?

A few discrepencies in the text:
~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

Genesis 1:5 ..."The first day"

Hosea 11:12 ...Does Judah "rule with God" or are they "unruly against God"?

Matt. 6:13 REMOVE "For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen." (This is the Lord's Prayer)

Mark 15:28 REMOVE "And the scripture was fulfilled, which saith, And he was numbered with the transgressors." (ANOTHER FULFILLED PROPHECY REMOVED. Isaiah 53:12)

Luke 2:33 CHANGE "Joseph" TO "his father"

John 8:9 ...some leave out "being convicted by their own conscience"

Acts 8:37 ...is often completely removed. 1 John 5:7 ...don't forget about the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit!

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

http://www.apostolic-temple.com/keyverses.htmlhttp://www.biblebelievers.net/bibleversions/kjcforv5.htmhttp://www.chick.com/information/bibleversions/articles/kingjamesbible.asp

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

An e-mail I sent:

I've read that the KJV was translated from the Geneva Bible, which was translated from the Bishops Bible, ect. I also read that it was translated from the recieved text which is supposed to be the most reliable, or have the least errors.... And then I've read that it was refered to as the authorised version untill it had cometition and was then called the King James Version....

In the Preface of the NKJV it admits errors in the KJV that they attempted to clarify. I have compared the KJV to several other translations (not assuming that KJV is the correct translation) and there does seem to be several consistant differences between translations.

For example: 1 John 5:7 in the King James, Third Millenium, Websters, the Douay-Rheims Bible, and Youngs Literal Translation basicly say "And there are Three who give testimony in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost. And these three are one." and then verse 8 goes on to say "And there are three that give testimony on earth: the spirit and the water and the blood. And these three are one."

Comparing that now to few other versions, mainly being, The Darby Translation, New American Standard, New Living Translation, The Message and NIV. "[v7]For there are three that testify: [v8] the Spirit and the water and the blood; and the three are in agreement." There are footnotes like: "A few late mss add {...in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And there are three that testify on earth, the Spirit} ....[v8]Lit {for the one thing}" -NASV ..or.. "What is omitted here has no real manuscript authority. ....[v8]'Are to one point or purpose' -- to one thing in their testimony. It is more than 'agree.'" -The Darby Translation ..or.. "Some very late manuscripts add in heaven<197>the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And we have three witnesses on earth." -NLT

Some, such as The Message, and NIV completely skip v7. There seem to be more translations that do not have that "The Father the Word and the Holy Spirit" than those that do... This is not the only verse in question, but it is the main one... Some of the others are:

Genesis 1:5 some say "THE first day" compared to "one day"

Matt. 6:13 where some add/remove "For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen." (This is part of the Lord's Prayer)

Mark 15:28 some aa/remove "And the scripture was fulfilled, which saith, And he was numbered with the transgressors." (a fulfilled prophesy. Isaiah 53:12)

Luke 2:33 some say "Joseph" compared to "his father" John 8:9 ("and they went away one by one") some add/leave out "being convicted by their own conscience"

In Matt 6:13, NASV it has a footnote saying "This clause not found in early mss"

So I am simularly lost... How can it be found in later manuscripts, but not in later ones unless someone added them? And the 1 John 5:7 verse seems to correspond very well to everything else in the Bible, or was it "added"?

So then was it there origionaly and just somehow got taken out of the earlier mass, but not the later? How is this possible? I would assume that the older the manuscripts then the more acurate... but 'the infamous they' seem to be claiming that the Recieved Text is a later manuscript AND more accurate?? So what is the deal w/ the ancient texts?? And how do I know that for sure (conflicting/accurate information)?? And then how do I find out (for sure) which versions were translated from which text?? And are whichever versions that are translated from the less accurate text (and even the less accurate text itself) currupted? (I believe the NIV is) Deluted maybe? And then is the corrupted/deluted word of God still powerfull? And how can the NASV be the most accurate if it is translated from faulty manuscripts? Is it? I know that "The word of the Lord endures forever." (1 Peter 1:25) But what about the meanings lost in translation because of the differences in language? If so, then why go back to the Greek, which I find often clarifies, and puts a new perspective on it?

I would really like to know where to go to get accurate information and be able, as much as possible, to research it for myself... Library, online, books, ect... Please let me know any ideas, thanks.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

http://www.apostolic-temple.com/keyverses.html

http://www.bible.org/docs/soapbox/KJVtoRV.htm

http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/manuscripts.html