The Biblical Aspects of Premarital Sex
So I was doing a little research lately on one of my favorite topics... (sex of course. ;-) haha.)
I was researching the moral and Biblical aspects of premarital sex, and here are a couple interesting things that I found:
1. Jewish Law, specifically the Torah or the Old Testament, prohibits:
a) Adultery (Ex 20:14, De 5:18 & Le 20:10)... all while failing to prohibit Pre-marital sex.
b) Homosexuality (Le 20:13)
c) Bestiality (Le 20:15-16)
d) Incest (Le 18:6-18)
According to JewishVirtualLibrary.org, a division of the American-Israeli Cooperative Enterprise:
"Many people are surprised to learn that the Torah does not prohibit premarital sex. I challenge you to find any passage in the Jewish scriptures that forbids a man from having consensual sexual relations with any woman he could legally marry. It's just not there!The verse they are referring to says that "If a man finds a young woman who is a virgin, who is not betrothed, and he seizes her and lies with her, and they are found out, then the man who lay with her shall give to the young woman's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife because he has humbled her; he shall not be permitted to divorce her all his days." (De 22:28-29)
"Nor is there any passage that requires a man to marry a woman after having consensual sexual relations with her. The passage forcing a man to marry the woman deals with rape (the man seizes her). It says nothing about consensual relations."(Link)
Jewish tradition in actuality does not approve of premarital sex or promiscuity.
"Quite the contrary: traditional Judaism strongly condemns the irresponsibility of sex outside of marriage. It is considered to be improper and immoral, even though it is not technically a sin.... But these laws come from the Talmud and the Shulchan Aruch, not from the Torah." (link)
A Jewish womans virginity does seem to be important since she is in danger of her life if her husband accuses her of not being a virgin when he married her, and no proof otherwise is presented. (De 22:13-21) Although I don't know how that would always be possible since a virgin can break her hymen by merely going about her daily tasks.
But yet again, in the Song Of Solomon there is an delicate and intimate love story between two unmarried lovers (Ref.1) who have already obviously consummated their relationship (SS 5:1). And it is portrayed in the most beautiful sense, and without condemnation.
Regarding the New Testament:
I will grant that the New Testament of the Bible prohibits "fornication" or "sexual immorality" in multiple places. The task now is to go back to the original intent of the writer and define what is meant by sexual immorality. The definition of the word "porneia" that is translated into the English language as sexual immorality covers a broad range of meanings which I would like to share.
1. illicit sexual intercourseKeep in mind that, 1) a word used does not usually encompass all of it's definitions at the same time and, 2) the meaning or definition of the word used usually varies according to the situation or context in which it was written.a. adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, intercourse with animals etc.2. metaph. the worship of idols
b. sexual intercourse with close relatives; Lev. 18
c. sexual intercourse with a divorced man or woman; Mk. 10:11,a. of the defilement of idolatry, as incurred by eating the sacrifices offered to idols (Link)
The first definition is "illicit sexual intercourse" which I would determine by what has already been prohibited in the Old Testament (Adultery, Homosexuality, Bestiality and Incest.) They also throw the word "fornication" in there which is loosely defined as "sexual intercourse between two unmarried people" (link) which includes premarital sex, but also therefore covers all of the above.
Also, take note of the second definition of pornea. It is metaphoric of idol worship. Even adultery in the old testament seems to be associated with, and sometimes metaphoric for idolatry. (Eze 23:37 & Ho 3:1) And one of the definitions of the word "Na'aph" which is translated as adultery is figurative for " idolatrous worship." (Link)
And in one of the verses where the NT talks about sexual immorality it refers to adultery and fornication separately (Ga 5:19) while some translations (ASV) remove adultery covering the entire meaning with the word "fornication." Paul later in the same sentence lists idolatry and sorcery, but other place it seems that he goes out of his way to identify fornication with idolatry.
Take these verses relating fornication and idolatry for example:
"Therefore put to death your members which are on the earth: fornication, uncleanness, passion, evil desire, and covetousness, which is idolatry." (Col 3:5)Even Leviticus 20:6 talks about prostituting one's self with "mediums and familiar spirits." (link)
"Do you not know that your bodies are members of Christ? Shall I then take the members of Christ and make them members of a harlot? Certainly not!" (1 Cor 6:15)
"But that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from things strangled, and from blood." (Ac 15:20)
As one of the websites I was reading clearly states:
"The Corinth city had many temples, where there were many temple prostitutes, both men and women. Paul told them that being members of the Messiah’s body they could not defile themselves with these Gentile’s devilish customs... Abstaining from fornication meant to refrain from having sex with temple prostitutes, a practice that was so prevalent in their day." (link)
It is therefore my opinion that:
a) Consensual premarital sex is not specifically forbidden in the Old Testament (or even dealt with in the Bible) comparative to other forms of "fornication," and is therefore differentiated.
b) Premarital sex is, on the contrary to what most believe, actually portrayed as very beautiful in some sections of scripture.
c) Premarital sex is actually propagated by the Christian community as sin, rather than being directly condemned by God.
Note: Some skeptics believe that "ancient Israel had no concept of pre-marital sex," although this does not make logical sense to me and I personally disagree. (link)
I did used to think that a woman was presumed to have lived with her family until she was married at a young age, but this does not seem to be the case, at least currently. One of the sites I was reading, instead of affirming that a woman remained at home until she was married, actually implied the opposite as it talked about "a woman who is not connected to a family unit" and quoted a Jewish woman as saying
"I value the fact that I can get up and travel abroad without asking anyone for the money." (link)
To close I would like to use the following quote by another single Jewish woman that shows the differentiation between laws imposed by God, and the laws imposed by man.
"My body, the thing with which I'm supposed to be on the friendliest terms, because it is `I,' is so much in conflict with itself because of the restrictions imposed by the rabbis." (link)
And now that I've concluded this issue, I would like to throw out a tidbit for you to think about. One of the other things that does not seem to be prohibited, or even discouraged in the Old (or New) Testament is polygamy. But that is a subject I plan to cover in the near future. Think about it.
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Other references used:
1. "She and her lover meet secretly in the countryside at night and part at daybreak, so it is clear that they are not married."
Taken form The Song of Songs: A New Translation, by Ariel Bloch and Chana Bloch.... page 3